CEN Practice Exam

2025 Edition

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A nurse who wishes to obtain the Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) credential must take and pass the CEN exam which is administered by the Board of Certification of Emergency Nursing (BCEN). The CEN exam is composed of 175 multiple choice questions and you are given three hours to complete the exam.There are twelve areas tested on the CEN exam: Cardiovascular - Respiratory - Medical Emergencies and Infections - Neurological - Orthopedics and Wounds - Gastrointestinal - Genitourinary, Gynecological and Obstetrical - Environment and Toxicology - Professional issues - Shock - Maxillofacial and Ocular – Psychosocial.The CEN exam tests your ability to use the Nursing Process within the context of Emergency nursing. Throughout the test, you can expect to see questions that will test your assessment, analysis, intervention and evaluation knowledge.

For complete practice, check out the CEN Practice Exam Kit with 750 questions and fully explained answers.

Cardiovascular Emergencies

1.	The patient is brought to the ED with an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). You are assessing him for possible administration of fibrinolytics. An absolute contraindication for this treatment is:
		a. The patient's pain is not relieved by medications.
Fibrinolytic therapy is generally NOT recommended for patients whose symptoms began more than 12 hours before arrival. Fibrinolytics should not be given if the onset of symptoms was more than 24 hours before arrival UNLESS a posterior MI is diagnosed. In this case, the MI was anterior. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Symptoms began 36 hours before arrival.
Fibrinolytic therapy is generally NOT recommended for patients whose symptoms began more than 12 hours before arrival. Fibrinolytics should not be given if the onset of symptoms was more than 24 hours before arrival UNLESS a posterior MI is diagnosed. In this case, the MI was anterior. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. The patient has received aspirin in the last 2 hours.
Fibrinolytic therapy is generally NOT recommended for patients whose symptoms began more than 12 hours before arrival. Fibrinolytics should not be given if the onset of symptoms was more than 24 hours before arrival UNLESS a posterior MI is diagnosed. In this case, the MI was anterior. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. The patient had a previous MI 6 years ago.
Fibrinolytic therapy is generally NOT recommended for patients whose symptoms began more than 12 hours before arrival. Fibrinolytics should not be given if the onset of symptoms was more than 24 hours before arrival UNLESS a posterior MI is diagnosed. In this case, the MI was anterior. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Cardiovascular Emergencies

2.	Preload refers to:
		a. The volume of blood entering the left side of the heart
Preload is the volume of blood that enters the right side of the heart. This volume stretches the fibers in the heart prior to contraction. Preload is commonly measured as atrial pressure. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. The volume of blood entering the right side of the heart
Preload is the volume of blood that enters the right side of the heart. This volume stretches the fibers in the heart prior to contraction. Preload is commonly measured as atrial pressure. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. The pressure in the venous system that the heart must overcome to pump the blood
Preload is the volume of blood that enters the right side of the heart. This volume stretches the fibers in the heart prior to contraction. Preload is commonly measured as atrial pressure. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. The pressure in the arterial system that the heart must overcome to pump the blood
Preload is the volume of blood that enters the right side of the heart. This volume stretches the fibers in the heart prior to contraction. Preload is commonly measured as atrial pressure. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Cardiovascular Emergencies

3.	The team is performing CPR on a patient. The rhythm that will respond to an electrical shock is:
		a. Asystole
Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia are the two rhythms that are considered to be "shockable" cardiac arrest rhythms. Although asystole and PEA are cardiac arrest rhythms, they will not respond to electrical shock. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. PEA
Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia are the two rhythms that are considered to be "shockable" cardiac arrest rhythms. Although asystole and PEA are cardiac arrest rhythms, they will not respond to electrical shock. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Ventricular fibrillation
Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia are the two rhythms that are considered to be "shockable" cardiac arrest rhythms. Although asystole and PEA are cardiac arrest rhythms, they will not respond to electrical shock. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. SVT
Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia are the two rhythms that are considered to be "shockable" cardiac arrest rhythms. Although asystole and PEA are cardiac arrest rhythms, they will not respond to electrical shock. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Cardiovascular Emergencies

4.	When suctioning during a cardiac arrest, suctioning should be limited to which of the following?
		a. Less than 5 seconds
According to the 2010 BLS and ACLS guidelines, suctioning for longer than 10 seconds may result in pulling too much oxygen out of the airways resulting in hypoxemia. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Less than 10 seconds
According to the 2010 BLS and ACLS guidelines, suctioning for longer than 10 seconds may result in pulling too much oxygen out of the airways resulting in hypoxemia. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Less than 20 seconds
According to the 2010 BLS and ACLS guidelines, suctioning for longer than 10 seconds may result in pulling too much oxygen out of the airways resulting in hypoxemia. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Less than 30 seconds
According to the 2010 BLS and ACLS guidelines, suctioning for longer than 10 seconds may result in pulling too much oxygen out of the airways resulting in hypoxemia. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Cardiovascular Emergencies

5.	Possible causes of cardiac arrest include all of the following EXCEPT:
		a. Hypervolemia
Common causes of cardiac arrest are known as the H's and T's and include: hypovolemia (NOT hypervolemia), hypoxia, hydrogen ion excess (acidosis), hypo or hyperkalemia, hypothermia, tension pneumothorax, tamponade, toxins, and thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary). Correction of these causes can often reverse a cardiac arrest. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Hypoxia
Common causes of cardiac arrest are known as the H's and T's and include: hypovolemia (NOT hypervolemia), hypoxia, hydrogen ion excess (acidosis), hypo or hyperkalemia, hypothermia, tension pneumothorax, tamponade, toxins, and thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary). Correction of these causes can often reverse a cardiac arrest. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Hypokalemia
Common causes of cardiac arrest are known as the H's and T's and include: hypovolemia (NOT hypervolemia), hypoxia, hydrogen ion excess (acidosis), hypo or hyperkalemia, hypothermia, tension pneumothorax, tamponade, toxins, and thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary). Correction of these causes can often reverse a cardiac arrest. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Tension Pneumothorax
Common causes of cardiac arrest are known as the H's and T's and include: hypovolemia (NOT hypervolemia), hypoxia, hydrogen ion excess (acidosis), hypo or hyperkalemia, hypothermia, tension pneumothorax, tamponade, toxins, and thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary). Correction of these causes can often reverse a cardiac arrest. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Respiratory Emergencies

6.	You are providing ventilations using a Bag-mask device. Suddenly, you do not see the patient's chest rise with the ventilation. You reposition the patient to ensure an open airway. When you attempt to ventilate, you do not see his chest rise. The most likely cause of this is:
		a. The bag-mask device is faulty
The most likely cause of the failure of the chest to rise during ventilations is an airway obstruction. Although a faulty bag-mask device is a possibility, it is unlikely that it would fail in the middle of providing ventilations. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Airway obstruction
The most likely cause of the failure of the chest to rise during ventilations is an airway obstruction. Although a faulty bag-mask device is a possibility, it is unlikely that it would fail in the middle of providing ventilations. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. The patient has suffered an MI
The most likely cause of the failure of the chest to rise during ventilations is an airway obstruction. Although a faulty bag-mask device is a possibility, it is unlikely that it would fail in the middle of providing ventilations. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Cardiac tamponade
The most likely cause of the failure of the chest to rise during ventilations is an airway obstruction. Although a faulty bag-mask device is a possibility, it is unlikely that it would fail in the middle of providing ventilations. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Respiratory Emergencies

7.	According to American Heart Association ACLS guidelines, cricoid pressure during intubation:
		a. Should be done in all cases.
According to the most current AHA guidelines, cricoid pressure may delay or prevent placement of an advanced airway so is no longer recommended. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Is no longer recommended.
According to the most current AHA guidelines, cricoid pressure may delay or prevent placement of an advanced airway so is no longer recommended. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Should only be done on children.
According to the most current AHA guidelines, cricoid pressure may delay or prevent placement of an advanced airway so is no longer recommended. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. None of the above.
According to the most current AHA guidelines, cricoid pressure may delay or prevent placement of an advanced airway so is no longer recommended. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Respiratory Emergencies

8.	You are providing positive pressure ventilation through an ET tube to a patient in respiratory distress. Indications that you are ventilating too fast include all of the following EXCEPT:
		a. Increasing waveform capnography readings
Latrogenic effects of hyperventilation through an ET tube include aspiration, stomach insufflation, and tension pneumothorax. Increasing waveform capnography readings are an indication of efficient CPR. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Stomach insufflation
Latrogenic effects of hyperventilation through an ET tube include aspiration, stomach insufflation, and tension pneumothorax. Increasing waveform capnography readings are an indication of efficient CPR. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Tension pneumothorax
Latrogenic effects of hyperventilation through an ET tube include aspiration, stomach insufflation, and tension pneumothorax. Increasing waveform capnography readings are an indication of efficient CPR. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Aspiration
Latrogenic effects of hyperventilation through an ET tube include aspiration, stomach insufflation, and tension pneumothorax. Increasing waveform capnography readings are an indication of efficient CPR. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Respiratory Emergencies

9.	According to American Heart Association ACLS guidelines, when available, the best way to confirm and maintain tracheal tube position is by:
		a. Clinical examination only.
The AHA recommends continuous waveform capnography and clinical examination to confirm and maintain ET tube position. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Quantitative waveform capnography.
The AHA recommends continuous waveform capnography and clinical examination to confirm and maintain ET tube position. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Clinical examination and Pulse oximetry.
The AHA recommends continuous waveform capnography and clinical examination to confirm and maintain ET tube position. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Clinical examination and quantitative waveform capnography.
The AHA recommends continuous waveform capnography and clinical examination to confirm and maintain ET tube position. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Respiratory Emergencies

10.	Signs of respiratory failure include all of the following EXCEPT:
		a. Bradypnea
Nasal flaring and retractions are signs of respiratory distress, not respiratory failure. In respiratory failure, you will see decreased respiratory effort with late bradypnea, diminished air movement, peripheral and central cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Diminished air movement
Nasal flaring and retractions are signs of respiratory distress, not respiratory failure. In respiratory failure, you will see decreased respiratory effort with late bradypnea, diminished air movement, peripheral and central cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Decreased level of consciousness
Nasal flaring and retractions are signs of respiratory distress, not respiratory failure. In respiratory failure, you will see decreased respiratory effort with late bradypnea, diminished air movement, peripheral and central cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Nasal flaring and retractions
Nasal flaring and retractions are signs of respiratory distress, not respiratory failure. In respiratory failure, you will see decreased respiratory effort with late bradypnea, diminished air movement, peripheral and central cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Shock Emergencies

11.	Emergency Medical Service has brought a 24-year-old man to the ED with gunshot wounds to his abdomen and left groin area. His blood pressure is 84/52 and heart rate is 120 per minute. His skin is diaphoretic, cool, and pale. The treatment the nurse should prepare for is:
		a. Chest compressions
The gunshot wounds and symptoms would indicate that the young man has lost a significant amount of blood that has resulted in hypovolemia. The treatment of hypovolemia is a rapid infusion of a crystalloid intravenous solution. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Endotracheal intubation
The gunshot wounds and symptoms would indicate that the young man has lost a significant amount of blood that has resulted in hypovolemia. The treatment of hypovolemia is a rapid infusion of a crystalloid intravenous solution. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Administration of verapamil
The gunshot wounds and symptoms would indicate that the young man has lost a significant amount of blood that has resulted in hypovolemia. The treatment of hypovolemia is a rapid infusion of a crystalloid intravenous solution. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Rapid administration of a crystalloid solution
The gunshot wounds and symptoms would indicate that the young man has lost a significant amount of blood that has resulted in hypovolemia. The treatment of hypovolemia is a rapid infusion of a crystalloid intravenous solution. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Shock Emergencies

12.	You are on the ED team caring for a 10-year-old child with a normal systolic blood pressure, increased heart rate, slightly delayed capillary refill and cool, pale skin. What severity of shock is the child likely in?
		a. Decompensated shock
Severity of shock is often characterized by its effect on the systolic blood pressure. When the compensatory mechanisms work and maintain the systolic blood pressure, the shock is defined as "compensated". When the mechanisms can no longer support the blood pressure, shock is classified as "hypotensive" (formally called "decompensated"). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Hypotensive shock
Severity of shock is often characterized by its effect on the systolic blood pressure. When the compensatory mechanisms work and maintain the systolic blood pressure, the shock is defined as "compensated". When the mechanisms can no longer support the blood pressure, shock is classified as "hypotensive" (formally called "decompensated"). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Compensated shock
Severity of shock is often characterized by its effect on the systolic blood pressure. When the compensatory mechanisms work and maintain the systolic blood pressure, the shock is defined as "compensated". When the mechanisms can no longer support the blood pressure, shock is classified as "hypotensive" (formally called "decompensated"). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. None of the above
Severity of shock is often characterized by its effect on the systolic blood pressure. When the compensatory mechanisms work and maintain the systolic blood pressure, the shock is defined as "compensated". When the mechanisms can no longer support the blood pressure, shock is classified as "hypotensive" (formally called "decompensated"). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Shock Emergencies

13.	You are caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock. You know that a probable cause of this condition is:
		a. Dehydration
Congestive heart failure is a common cause of cardiogenic shock. Acute myocardial infarction and other heart conditions can also cause cardiogenic shock. Dehydration can be a cause of hypovolemic shock. Spinal cord injury can cause neurogenic shock. Infection can cause septic shock. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Spinal cord injury
Congestive heart failure is a common cause of cardiogenic shock. Acute myocardial infarction and other heart conditions can also cause cardiogenic shock. Dehydration can be a cause of hypovolemic shock. Spinal cord injury can cause neurogenic shock. Infection can cause septic shock. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Congestive heart failure
Congestive heart failure is a common cause of cardiogenic shock. Acute myocardial infarction and other heart conditions can also cause cardiogenic shock. Dehydration can be a cause of hypovolemic shock. Spinal cord injury can cause neurogenic shock. Infection can cause septic shock. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Infection
Congestive heart failure is a common cause of cardiogenic shock. Acute myocardial infarction and other heart conditions can also cause cardiogenic shock. Dehydration can be a cause of hypovolemic shock. Spinal cord injury can cause neurogenic shock. Infection can cause septic shock. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Shock Emergencies

14.	You are caring for a 10-year-old child with normal blood pressure, increased heart rate, and cool pale skin. The child is reported to have had vomitting and diarrhea the past two days. As you perform your primary assessment, you note that respirations are clear and not labored. What is the probable first intervention for this child?
		a. Give 20 ml/kg bolus of saline or lactated Ringer's
By all indications, the child is in hypovolemic shock and the first interventions should be a fluid bolus at 20 ml/kg of saline or lactated Ringer's solution. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Start an Epinephrine infusion at 0.1mg/kg
By all indications, the child is in hypovolemic shock and the first interventions should be a fluid bolus at 20 ml/kg of saline or lactated Ringer's solution. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Give Epinephrine bolus of 0.01 mg/kg
By all indications, the child is in hypovolemic shock and the first interventions should be a fluid bolus at 20 ml/kg of saline or lactated Ringer's solution. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Give Amiodarone 5 mg/kg IV over 60 minutes
By all indications, the child is in hypovolemic shock and the first interventions should be a fluid bolus at 20 ml/kg of saline or lactated Ringer's solution. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Neurological Emergencies

15.	You assume care for the patient in the ED. During the time she has been in the ED, she has consistently complained of photophobia, a stiff neck, increasing confusion, and nausea. Her history shows a motor vehicle accident several days ago. She states the pain is the worst headache she has ever had. You suspect she might have a:
		a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Given the history of the recent MVA and these classic symptoms, the prudent nurse should have a high degree of suspicion of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Assessment will show neurologic deficits and decreased eye movements. The nurse should prepare the patient for a CT scan of the brain. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Migraine headache
Given the history of the recent MVA and these classic symptoms, the prudent nurse should have a high degree of suspicion of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Assessment will show neurologic deficits and decreased eye movements. The nurse should prepare the patient for a CT scan of the brain. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Whiplash injury
Given the history of the recent MVA and these classic symptoms, the prudent nurse should have a high degree of suspicion of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Assessment will show neurologic deficits and decreased eye movements. The nurse should prepare the patient for a CT scan of the brain. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Sinus headache
Given the history of the recent MVA and these classic symptoms, the prudent nurse should have a high degree of suspicion of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Assessment will show neurologic deficits and decreased eye movements. The nurse should prepare the patient for a CT scan of the brain. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Neurological Emergencies

16.	To quickly evaluate a child's neurological status, all of the following standard evaluations can be used EXCEPT:
		a. The Epworth Scale.
The Epworth Scale is a measure of sleepiness and is not part of the standard evaluation of a child's neurological exam. The AVPU and Glasgow Coma scales can be used to evaluate a child's neuro status. Pupillary size and response should also be checked. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. The AVPU scale.
The Epworth Scale is a measure of sleepiness and is not part of the standard evaluation of a child's neurological exam. The AVPU and Glasgow Coma scales can be used to evaluate a child's neuro status. Pupillary size and response should also be checked. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. The Glasgow Coma Scale.
The Epworth Scale is a measure of sleepiness and is not part of the standard evaluation of a child's neurological exam. The AVPU and Glasgow Coma scales can be used to evaluate a child's neuro status. Pupillary size and response should also be checked. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Pupillary responses to light.
The Epworth Scale is a measure of sleepiness and is not part of the standard evaluation of a child's neurological exam. The AVPU and Glasgow Coma scales can be used to evaluate a child's neuro status. Pupillary size and response should also be checked. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Neurological Emergencies

17.	According to the American Heart Association stroke recommendations, the critical goal time from arrival to the Emergency Department to CT brain scan is:
		a. 10 minutes
The goal for CT brain scan is 25 minutes after arrival to the Emergency Department. The assessment should occur within 10 minutes of arrival, diagnosis of ischemic stroke should be made within 45 minutes, and the administration of fibrinolytics should occur with 60 minutes. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. 25 minutes
The goal for CT brain scan is 25 minutes after arrival to the Emergency Department. The assessment should occur within 10 minutes of arrival, diagnosis of ischemic stroke should be made within 45 minutes, and the administration of fibrinolytics should occur with 60 minutes. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. 45 minutes
The goal for CT brain scan is 25 minutes after arrival to the Emergency Department. The assessment should occur within 10 minutes of arrival, diagnosis of ischemic stroke should be made within 45 minutes, and the administration of fibrinolytics should occur with 60 minutes. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. 60 minutes
The goal for CT brain scan is 25 minutes after arrival to the Emergency Department. The assessment should occur within 10 minutes of arrival, diagnosis of ischemic stroke should be made within 45 minutes, and the administration of fibrinolytics should occur with 60 minutes. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Neurological Emergencies

18.	The National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stokes (NINDS) has set the goal for immediate general assessment by a stroke team or emergency physician as:
		a. Within 1 minute of arrival.
The goal for general assessment by an ED or stroke team physician is within 10 minutes of arrival to the ED. Within the same 10 minutes, an urgent CT without contrast should also be ordered. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Within 10 minutes of arrival.
The goal for general assessment by an ED or stroke team physician is within 10 minutes of arrival to the ED. Within the same 10 minutes, an urgent CT without contrast should also be ordered. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Within 30 minutes of arrival.
The goal for general assessment by an ED or stroke team physician is within 10 minutes of arrival to the ED. Within the same 10 minutes, an urgent CT without contrast should also be ordered. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Within 60 minutes of arrival.
The goal for general assessment by an ED or stroke team physician is within 10 minutes of arrival to the ED. Within the same 10 minutes, an urgent CT without contrast should also be ordered. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Genitourinary, Gynecological and Obstetrical Emergencies

19.	A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ED by his parents. They state that he awoke from sleep with nausea, vomiting, and pain in his scrotum. The nurse notes that the boy's scrotum is swollen and he has a low-grade fever. His urinalysis is normal. The physician suspects a testicular torsion. The definitive treatment for this boy is:
		a. Antibiotics
The nurse should recognize that these signs and symptoms in a teenage boy may be indicative of testicular torsion. Although all of the treatments may be used, surgery is the definitive treatment for this condition. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Bed rest for several days
The nurse should recognize that these signs and symptoms in a teenage boy may be indicative of testicular torsion. Although all of the treatments may be used, surgery is the definitive treatment for this condition. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Anti-emetic and pain medication
The nurse should recognize that these signs and symptoms in a teenage boy may be indicative of testicular torsion. Although all of the treatments may be used, surgery is the definitive treatment for this condition. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Surgery
The nurse should recognize that these signs and symptoms in a teenage boy may be indicative of testicular torsion. Although all of the treatments may be used, surgery is the definitive treatment for this condition. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Genitourinary, Gynecological and Obstetrical Emergencies

20.	A 24-year-old woman is seen in the emergency department complaining of urinary frequency, pain with urination and urgency. Vital signs are stable and within normal limits. When you obtain a urine specimen, you note that it is cloudy and foul smelling. You should prepare the patient for:
		a. Admission for acute renal failure
The symptoms of dysuria, urgency and frequency are classic indicators of a urinary tract infection. Urinary tract infections are very common in women and can almost always be treated on an outpatient basis with a course of antibiotics. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Discharge with antibiotic therapy
The symptoms of dysuria, urgency and frequency are classic indicators of a urinary tract infection. Urinary tract infections are very common in women and can almost always be treated on an outpatient basis with a course of antibiotics. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Admission for lithotripsy
The symptoms of dysuria, urgency and frequency are classic indicators of a urinary tract infection. Urinary tract infections are very common in women and can almost always be treated on an outpatient basis with a course of antibiotics. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Discharge without medications
The symptoms of dysuria, urgency and frequency are classic indicators of a urinary tract infection. Urinary tract infections are very common in women and can almost always be treated on an outpatient basis with a course of antibiotics. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Genitourinary, Gynecological and Obstetrical Emergencies

21.	A woman is admitted to the ED with complaints of lower abdominal pain, smelly vaginal discharge, pain with intercourse, and burning with urination. Her vital signs are stable, and she has no other symptoms. Treatment for this patient will likely include:
		a. Hysterectomy
Given the patient symptoms, the nurse should suspect that the patient has pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). With early antibiotic treatment, this infection can be treated on an outpatient basis. Without treatment, the infection can continue and cause scar tissue that may lead to infertility and ectopic pregnancies. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Inpatient treatment
Given the patient symptoms, the nurse should suspect that the patient has pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). With early antibiotic treatment, this infection can be treated on an outpatient basis. Without treatment, the infection can continue and cause scar tissue that may lead to infertility and ectopic pregnancies. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Antibiotics
Given the patient symptoms, the nurse should suspect that the patient has pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). With early antibiotic treatment, this infection can be treated on an outpatient basis. Without treatment, the infection can continue and cause scar tissue that may lead to infertility and ectopic pregnancies. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. No treatment is needed
Given the patient symptoms, the nurse should suspect that the patient has pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). With early antibiotic treatment, this infection can be treated on an outpatient basis. Without treatment, the infection can continue and cause scar tissue that may lead to infertility and ectopic pregnancies. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Genitourinary, Gynecological and Obstetrical Emergencies

22.	When evaluating a patient for Acute Renal Failure, it is helpful to use the RIFLE criteria for classification. This acronym refers to:
		a. Risk, Injury, Functional decrease, Loss, and End-Stage kidney disease
ARF can be classified by using Risk, Injury, Failure, Loss and End-stage kidney disease. Risk is defined as an increased serum creatinine level at 1.5 times normal or decrease of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) by 25% or decrease in urine output less than 0.5 cc/kg/hr for more than 6 hours. AFR is defined as Injury when the serum creatinine level is increased more than 2 times, GFR is decreased by 50% or urine output is less than 0.5 cc/kg/hr for 12 hours. AFR is defined as Failure when the serum creatinine level is increased more than 3 times, GFR is decreased by 75% or urine output is less than 0.3 cc/kg/hr for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours. AFR is classified as Loss if there is persistent ARF or if there is a complete loss of kidney function for more than 4 weeks. End-stage kidney disease is defined as a loss of kidney function for more than 3 months. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Risk, Iatrogenic factors, Failure, Labile diabetes, and End-Stage kidney disease
ARF can be classified by using Risk, Injury, Failure, Loss and End-stage kidney disease. Risk is defined as an increased serum creatinine level at 1.5 times normal or decrease of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) by 25% or decrease in urine output less than 0.5 cc/kg/hr for more than 6 hours. AFR is defined as Injury when the serum creatinine level is increased more than 2 times, GFR is decreased by 50% or urine output is less than 0.5 cc/kg/hr for 12 hours. AFR is defined as Failure when the serum creatinine level is increased more than 3 times, GFR is decreased by 75% or urine output is less than 0.3 cc/kg/hr for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours. AFR is classified as Loss if there is persistent ARF or if there is a complete loss of kidney function for more than 4 weeks. End-stage kidney disease is defined as a loss of kidney function for more than 3 months. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Risk, Iatrogenic factors, Failure, Loss, and End-Stage kidney disease
ARF can be classified by using Risk, Injury, Failure, Loss and End-stage kidney disease. Risk is defined as an increased serum creatinine level at 1.5 times normal or decrease of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) by 25% or decrease in urine output less than 0.5 cc/kg/hr for more than 6 hours. AFR is defined as Injury when the serum creatinine level is increased more than 2 times, GFR is decreased by 50% or urine output is less than 0.5 cc/kg/hr for 12 hours. AFR is defined as Failure when the serum creatinine level is increased more than 3 times, GFR is decreased by 75% or urine output is less than 0.3 cc/kg/hr for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours. AFR is classified as Loss if there is persistent ARF or if there is a complete loss of kidney function for more than 4 weeks. End-stage kidney disease is defined as a loss of kidney function for more than 3 months. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Risk, Injury, Failure, Loss, and End-Stage kidney disease
ARF can be classified by using Risk, Injury, Failure, Loss and End-stage kidney disease. Risk is defined as an increased serum creatinine level at 1.5 times normal or decrease of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) by 25% or decrease in urine output less than 0.5 cc/kg/hr for more than 6 hours. AFR is defined as Injury when the serum creatinine level is increased more than 2 times, GFR is decreased by 50% or urine output is less than 0.5 cc/kg/hr for 12 hours. AFR is defined as Failure when the serum creatinine level is increased more than 3 times, GFR is decreased by 75% or urine output is less than 0.3 cc/kg/hr for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours. AFR is classified as Loss if there is persistent ARF or if there is a complete loss of kidney function for more than 4 weeks. End-stage kidney disease is defined as a loss of kidney function for more than 3 months. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Genitourinary, Gynecological and Obstetrical Emergencies

23.	The nurse has assisted in an emergent delivery of an infant in the Emergency Department. The infant was born 2 weeks before the due date and is small for gestational age. The nurse documents a thin upper lip, small eye openings, and a smooth philtrum above the upper lip. This child may be diagnosed with:
		a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
The symptoms described in the scenario are classic signs of fetal alcohol syndrome caused by maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. The other vitamin deficiencies can result in defects and delays in growth and development, but the particular facial deformities in this scenario are unique to FAS. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Folic acid deficiency
The symptoms described in the scenario are classic signs of fetal alcohol syndrome caused by maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. The other vitamin deficiencies can result in defects and delays in growth and development, but the particular facial deformities in this scenario are unique to FAS. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Fetal alcohol syndrome
The symptoms described in the scenario are classic signs of fetal alcohol syndrome caused by maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. The other vitamin deficiencies can result in defects and delays in growth and development, but the particular facial deformities in this scenario are unique to FAS. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Diabetes
The symptoms described in the scenario are classic signs of fetal alcohol syndrome caused by maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. The other vitamin deficiencies can result in defects and delays in growth and development, but the particular facial deformities in this scenario are unique to FAS. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Medical and Infectious Disease Emergencies

24.	A young man is brought to the Emergency Department after receiving multiple fire ant bites while working in his yard. Although initially alert and oriented, he begins to develop wheezing and an itchy throat. He complains of nausea and severe anxiety. The ED nurse should prepare to administer all of the following for initial treatment EXCEPT:
		a. Adrenaline
The nurse should recognize that these signs and symptoms indicate possible anaphylaxis following the fire ant bites. Antibiotics are not indicated for the initial treatment of anaphylaxis. They may be necessary at a future time if the ant bites become infected. Adrenaline, oxygen, and antihistamines will help reduce some of the symptoms the patient is experiencing. The nurse should also be prepared for emergency intubation if the respiratory problems increase and result in respiratory distress. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Antibiotic
The nurse should recognize that these signs and symptoms indicate possible anaphylaxis following the fire ant bites. Antibiotics are not indicated for the initial treatment of anaphylaxis. They may be necessary at a future time if the ant bites become infected. Adrenaline, oxygen, and antihistamines will help reduce some of the symptoms the patient is experiencing. The nurse should also be prepared for emergency intubation if the respiratory problems increase and result in respiratory distress. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Oxygen
The nurse should recognize that these signs and symptoms indicate possible anaphylaxis following the fire ant bites. Antibiotics are not indicated for the initial treatment of anaphylaxis. They may be necessary at a future time if the ant bites become infected. Adrenaline, oxygen, and antihistamines will help reduce some of the symptoms the patient is experiencing. The nurse should also be prepared for emergency intubation if the respiratory problems increase and result in respiratory distress. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Antihistamines
The nurse should recognize that these signs and symptoms indicate possible anaphylaxis following the fire ant bites. Antibiotics are not indicated for the initial treatment of anaphylaxis. They may be necessary at a future time if the ant bites become infected. Adrenaline, oxygen, and antihistamines will help reduce some of the symptoms the patient is experiencing. The nurse should also be prepared for emergency intubation if the respiratory problems increase and result in respiratory distress. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Medical and Infectious Disease Emergencies

25.	An eight-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by his parents after receiving multiple fire ant bites at his home. His lips are swollen, and he is complaining of itching. During your assessment, you note that he is wheezing. The most appropriate immediate treatment for this child is:
		a. Antibiotic
The mechanism of injury and symptoms would indicate an anaphylactic reaction to the fire ant bites. Since the child has respiratory symptoms, immediate treatment must be instituted with attention to airway maintenance. Epinephrine will act rapidly and should be given as soon as possible and every 10 to 15 minutes as needed. Steroids and antihistamines may be given, but act much more slowly than epinephrine. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. IV antihistamine
The mechanism of injury and symptoms would indicate an anaphylactic reaction to the fire ant bites. Since the child has respiratory symptoms, immediate treatment must be instituted with attention to airway maintenance. Epinephrine will act rapidly and should be given as soon as possible and every 10 to 15 minutes as needed. Steroids and antihistamines may be given, but act much more slowly than epinephrine. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. IV steroid
The mechanism of injury and symptoms would indicate an anaphylactic reaction to the fire ant bites. Since the child has respiratory symptoms, immediate treatment must be instituted with attention to airway maintenance. Epinephrine will act rapidly and should be given as soon as possible and every 10 to 15 minutes as needed. Steroids and antihistamines may be given, but act much more slowly than epinephrine. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. IM epinephrine
The mechanism of injury and symptoms would indicate an anaphylactic reaction to the fire ant bites. Since the child has respiratory symptoms, immediate treatment must be instituted with attention to airway maintenance. Epinephrine will act rapidly and should be given as soon as possible and every 10 to 15 minutes as needed. Steroids and antihistamines may be given, but act much more slowly than epinephrine. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Medical and Infectious Disease Emergencies

26.	The Emergency Department nurse knows that the best way to prevent transmission of nosocomial infections is:
		a. Using sterile supplies
According to the CDC and infection control personnel, hand hygiene is the single most important precaution to take to prevent hospital-acquired infections. The other interventions may be necessary for specific circumstances. However, hand hygiene is the most important intervention to prevent nosocomial infections. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Isolating patients
According to the CDC and infection control personnel, hand hygiene is the single most important precaution to take to prevent hospital-acquired infections. The other interventions may be necessary for specific circumstances. However, hand hygiene is the most important intervention to prevent nosocomial infections. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Wearing appropriate personal protective equipment
According to the CDC and infection control personnel, hand hygiene is the single most important precaution to take to prevent hospital-acquired infections. The other interventions may be necessary for specific circumstances. However, hand hygiene is the most important intervention to prevent nosocomial infections. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Hand hygiene
According to the CDC and infection control personnel, hand hygiene is the single most important precaution to take to prevent hospital-acquired infections. The other interventions may be necessary for specific circumstances. However, hand hygiene is the most important intervention to prevent nosocomial infections. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Medical and Infectious Disease Emergencies

27.	Patient placement in the emergency department should be based on:
		a. Route of transmission of the suspected infectious agent
Isolation precautions should be based on all of these factors. In addition, ED personnel must consider risk factors for transmission of the agent in the infected patient. Room-sharing should only be considered if the patients have the same infection. Terminal clean should be instituted for any room that has been occupied by a potentially infectious patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Risk factors in other patients in the ED
Isolation precautions should be based on all of these factors. In addition, ED personnel must consider risk factors for transmission of the agent in the infected patient. Room-sharing should only be considered if the patients have the same infection. Terminal clean should be instituted for any room that has been occupied by a potentially infectious patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Availability of single-patient rooms
Isolation precautions should be based on all of these factors. In addition, ED personnel must consider risk factors for transmission of the agent in the infected patient. Room-sharing should only be considered if the patients have the same infection. Terminal clean should be instituted for any room that has been occupied by a potentially infectious patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. All the above
Isolation precautions should be based on all of these factors. In addition, ED personnel must consider risk factors for transmission of the agent in the infected patient. Room-sharing should only be considered if the patients have the same infection. Terminal clean should be instituted for any room that has been occupied by a potentially infectious patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		e. Both a and b only
Isolation precautions should be based on all of these factors. In addition, ED personnel must consider risk factors for transmission of the agent in the infected patient. Room-sharing should only be considered if the patients have the same infection. Terminal clean should be instituted for any room that has been occupied by a potentially infectious patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Gastrointestinal Emergencies

28.	You are caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A. The discharge instructions for this patient will likely include all of the following EXCEPT:
		a. Medication for nausea
Patients with hepatitis A rarely have pain so having scheduled pain medication would not be necessary. However, these patients do have nausea and fatigue necessitating medication and small meals for nausea and frequent rests for the fatigue. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Advising eating several small meals rather than 3 large meals
Patients with hepatitis A rarely have pain so having scheduled pain medication would not be necessary. However, these patients do have nausea and fatigue necessitating medication and small meals for nausea and frequent rests for the fatigue. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Scheduled medicines for pain
Patients with hepatitis A rarely have pain so having scheduled pain medication would not be necessary. However, these patients do have nausea and fatigue necessitating medication and small meals for nausea and frequent rests for the fatigue. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Resting frequently
Patients with hepatitis A rarely have pain so having scheduled pain medication would not be necessary. However, these patients do have nausea and fatigue necessitating medication and small meals for nausea and frequent rests for the fatigue. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Gastrointestinal Emergencies

29.	A 12-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department by his parents after accidentally swallowing a disk battery while changing the battery in his watch. A chest x-ray reveals that the battery is in the patient's esophagus. He is able to swallow and breathe without difficulty. The most appropriate intervention for this patient is to:
		a. Prepare the patient and his family for emergent endoscopy to remove the battery.
Emergent endoscopy is indicated for any obstruction: when a patient is unable to manage secretions, when a patient swallows a sharp-pointed object, or when a patient swallows a disk battery. Any of these ingestions may constitute an emergency and the patient and family should be prepared for possible emergent endoscopy. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Allow the patient clear liquids until repeat x-rays show that the battery has moved into the stomach.
Emergent endoscopy is indicated for any obstruction: when a patient is unable to manage secretions, when a patient swallows a sharp-pointed object, or when a patient swallows a disk battery. Any of these ingestions may constitute an emergency and the patient and family should be prepared for possible emergent endoscopy. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Discharge the patient to home with instructions to check his stools until the battery passes.
Emergent endoscopy is indicated for any obstruction: when a patient is unable to manage secretions, when a patient swallows a sharp-pointed object, or when a patient swallows a disk battery. Any of these ingestions may constitute an emergency and the patient and family should be prepared for possible emergent endoscopy. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Prepare to administer polyethylene glycol.
Emergent endoscopy is indicated for any obstruction: when a patient is unable to manage secretions, when a patient swallows a sharp-pointed object, or when a patient swallows a disk battery. Any of these ingestions may constitute an emergency and the patient and family should be prepared for possible emergent endoscopy. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Gastrointestinal Emergencies

30.	A nurse is caring for a patient with pancreatitis. Which of the following symptoms would indicate a possible life-threatening complication?
		a. Abnormal bowel sounds
Respiratory distress as evidenced by increased respiratory rate is a potentially life-threatening complication of pancreatitis. The other symptoms are all common findings in the patient with pancreatitis. If the symptoms have not changed significantly, they should be noted but are not life-threatening. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Abdominal pain
Respiratory distress as evidenced by increased respiratory rate is a potentially life-threatening complication of pancreatitis. The other symptoms are all common findings in the patient with pancreatitis. If the symptoms have not changed significantly, they should be noted but are not life-threatening. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Nausea and vomiting
Respiratory distress as evidenced by increased respiratory rate is a potentially life-threatening complication of pancreatitis. The other symptoms are all common findings in the patient with pancreatitis. If the symptoms have not changed significantly, they should be noted but are not life-threatening. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Increased respiratory rate
Respiratory distress as evidenced by increased respiratory rate is a potentially life-threatening complication of pancreatitis. The other symptoms are all common findings in the patient with pancreatitis. If the symptoms have not changed significantly, they should be noted but are not life-threatening. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Gastrointestinal Emergencies

31.	An alcoholic patient well known to the emergency department staff presents to the department with complaints of generalized weakness, low-grade fever off and on for the last month, new onset ankle edema, anorexia, right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting. He denies any bloody or coffee ground emesis. This patient should be evaluated for esophageal varices.
		a. True
Given the history of alcoholism and the presenting symptoms, this patient should be considered at very high risk for esophageal varices. As the disease progresses, one would expect to see bleeding from the varices. Ruptured esophageal varices should be considered a medical/surgical emergency. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. False
Given the history of alcoholism and the presenting symptoms, this patient should be considered at very high risk for esophageal varices. As the disease progresses, one would expect to see bleeding from the varices. Ruptured esophageal varices should be considered a medical/surgical emergency. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Maxillofacial and Ocular Emergencies

32.	A patient has been admitted to the Emergency Department with persistent epistaxis. Vital signs are stable. The correct position for this patient is:
		a. Sitting with head leaning forward
The patient should be sitting up with his head leaning forward. This position helps to prevent blood from being swallowed by the patient. Swallowing blood can cause vomiting. Pinching the nose below the bridge of the nose may help stop bleeding. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Supine with the head facing to the side
The patient should be sitting up with his head leaning forward. This position helps to prevent blood from being swallowed by the patient. Swallowing blood can cause vomiting. Pinching the nose below the bridge of the nose may help stop bleeding. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Left lateral recumbent
The patient should be sitting up with his head leaning forward. This position helps to prevent blood from being swallowed by the patient. Swallowing blood can cause vomiting. Pinching the nose below the bridge of the nose may help stop bleeding. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Prone with the head facing to the side
The patient should be sitting up with his head leaning forward. This position helps to prevent blood from being swallowed by the patient. Swallowing blood can cause vomiting. Pinching the nose below the bridge of the nose may help stop bleeding. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Maxillofacial and Ocular Emergencies

33.	A patient presents to the ED with complaint of ear and jaw pain. Upon assessment, you note that his tympanic membranes are non-bulging, pearly gray. You look in his mouth and see this: The primary diagnosis for this patient will be:
		a. Acute otitis media
The normal eardrum is pearly gray in color so this would rule out any of the ear infections. This patient has an extensive dental caries that should be referred to a dentist. The ED provider may prescribe antibiotics and/or pain medications for this patient to clear any infection that may be causing the ear pain. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Acute otitis externa
The normal eardrum is pearly gray in color so this would rule out any of the ear infections. This patient has an extensive dental caries that should be referred to a dentist. The ED provider may prescribe antibiotics and/or pain medications for this patient to clear any infection that may be causing the ear pain. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Dental caries
The normal eardrum is pearly gray in color so this would rule out any of the ear infections. This patient has an extensive dental caries that should be referred to a dentist. The ED provider may prescribe antibiotics and/or pain medications for this patient to clear any infection that may be causing the ear pain. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. None of the above
The normal eardrum is pearly gray in color so this would rule out any of the ear infections. This patient has an extensive dental caries that should be referred to a dentist. The ED provider may prescribe antibiotics and/or pain medications for this patient to clear any infection that may be causing the ear pain. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Maxillofacial and Ocular Emergencies

34.	A young woman is brought to the ED by her roommates. The nurse notes that a knitting needle is sticking out of her right eye. All of the following are appropriate initial interventions EXCEPT:
		a. Consult an ophthalmologist
A penetrating object should never be removed by the nurse since doing so can cause more injury to the eye. Instead, attempt to stabilize the object, patch the other eye to prevent eye movement, and call for an ophthalmology consult. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Apply gauze around the knitting needle to stabilize it
A penetrating object should never be removed by the nurse since doing so can cause more injury to the eye. Instead, attempt to stabilize the object, patch the other eye to prevent eye movement, and call for an ophthalmology consult. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Remove the knitting needle and patch the eye
A penetrating object should never be removed by the nurse since doing so can cause more injury to the eye. Instead, attempt to stabilize the object, patch the other eye to prevent eye movement, and call for an ophthalmology consult. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Patch the other eye
A penetrating object should never be removed by the nurse since doing so can cause more injury to the eye. Instead, attempt to stabilize the object, patch the other eye to prevent eye movement, and call for an ophthalmology consult. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Maxillofacial and Ocular Emergencies

35.	A baseball coach calls the emergency department after a 15-year-old boy had a tooth knocked out during a baseball game. The baseball coach found the intact tooth on the ground and has rinsed off the dirt. What should the coach be advised to do?
		a. The tooth and boy should go to the dentist in the morning.
Many times, an avulsed tooth can be reimplanted if the tooth is out of the socket for less than 60 minutes. After that time, the periodontal ligaments begin to die. An avulsed tooth is best transported in the patient's own mouth if he is not at risk for swallowing the tooth and if there are no other injuries. Generally, the rule of thumb is that children under the age of six should not transport the tooth in their mouth. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. You cannot give any advice over the telephone.
Many times, an avulsed tooth can be reimplanted if the tooth is out of the socket for less than 60 minutes. After that time, the periodontal ligaments begin to die. An avulsed tooth is best transported in the patient's own mouth if he is not at risk for swallowing the tooth and if there are no other injuries. Generally, the rule of thumb is that children under the age of six should not transport the tooth in their mouth. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. If the child is alert and oriented, put the tooth under his tongue and bring him to the ED.
Many times, an avulsed tooth can be reimplanted if the tooth is out of the socket for less than 60 minutes. After that time, the periodontal ligaments begin to die. An avulsed tooth is best transported in the patient's own mouth if he is not at risk for swallowing the tooth and if there are no other injuries. Generally, the rule of thumb is that children under the age of six should not transport the tooth in their mouth. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Wrap the tooth in a clean shirt and bring the boy and tooth to the ED.
Many times, an avulsed tooth can be reimplanted if the tooth is out of the socket for less than 60 minutes. After that time, the periodontal ligaments begin to die. An avulsed tooth is best transported in the patient's own mouth if he is not at risk for swallowing the tooth and if there are no other injuries. Generally, the rule of thumb is that children under the age of six should not transport the tooth in their mouth. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.