CCRN Practice Test

2025 Edition

Take this free CCRN practice test to get a sample of the types of questions on the actual Critical Care Registered Nurse certification exam.

The CCRN exam is a 3 hour exam covering 150 multiple choice questions. The CCRN exams focus on three general populations: adult, pediatric and neonatal patients. Within the three general populations, the following subject categories are covered: Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Endocrine, Hematology / Immunity, Neurology, Gastrointestinal, Renal, Multisystem, Mental Health and Professional Care and Ethical Practice. Each exam is age specific and a large percentage of each test focuses on clinical judgment. A smaller percentage of each test covers professional caring and ethical practice, which can address any age in the life span, in any of the tests.

For complete practice, check out the CCRN Practice Exam Kit with 750 questions and fully explained answers. CCRN FAQ's V

Cardiovascular

1.	A 47-year-old male has been admitted to the CCU from the emergency room with a history of sudden diaphoresis, nausea, vomiting and radiating pain down his left arm. He reports no significant medical history, and has been a two PPD smoker since his early twenties. His admitting diagnosis is UA/NSTEMI and he is being prepped for cardiac catheterization for possible angioplasty with stent placement. What type of medication orders might the nurse see prior to his procedure?
		a. Clopidogrel and ASA
In 2011, a joint task force of the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association published updated guidelines for the treatment of unstable angina (UA) with non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). These guidelines recommend that all patients with this diagnosis receive ASA on admission, and throughout hospitalization, if tolerated. If a patient is scheduled for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), it is recommended that a second anti-platelet therapy be added, such as clopidogrel (Plavix). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Clopidogrel and prasugrel
In 2011, a joint task force of the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association published updated guidelines for the treatment of unstable angina (UA) with non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). These guidelines recommend that all patients with this diagnosis receive ASA on admission, and throughout hospitalization, if tolerated. If a patient is scheduled for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), it is recommended that a second anti-platelet therapy be added, such as clopidogrel (Plavix). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Clopidogrel and meperidine
In 2011, a joint task force of the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association published updated guidelines for the treatment of unstable angina (UA) with non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). These guidelines recommend that all patients with this diagnosis receive ASA on admission, and throughout hospitalization, if tolerated. If a patient is scheduled for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), it is recommended that a second anti-platelet therapy be added, such as clopidogrel (Plavix). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Prasugrel, ASA, and hyoscyamine
In 2011, a joint task force of the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association published updated guidelines for the treatment of unstable angina (UA) with non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). These guidelines recommend that all patients with this diagnosis receive ASA on admission, and throughout hospitalization, if tolerated. If a patient is scheduled for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), it is recommended that a second anti-platelet therapy be added, such as clopidogrel (Plavix). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Cardiovascular

2.	Agnes is a 65-year-old white female who has a history of pulmonary fibrosis with steroid use for the past two years with concomitant hypertension. She has been on oxygen therapy at 4L per nasal cannula for the past 3 years. Recently, her first great-grandchild was born, and she decided to quit smoking. Three days ago, she experienced nausea and dizziness and was admitted to the CCU with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. During shift change, Agnes' low blood pressure alarm sounds. Upon assessment, she is diaphoretic and has severe dyspnea. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
		a. Exacerbation of pulmonary fibrosis
Myocardial rupture can be a catastrophic sequelae of acute myocardial infarction. It can occur in several sites in the heart after AMI, including the left papillary muscle. This event typically occurs 3-5 days after the AMI has occurred, and is more common in women who have a history of hypertension and are over the age of 60. The posteromedial papillary muscle is twice as likely to rupture as the anterolateral papillary muscle, due to the additional blood supply to the latter. Symptoms may include hypotension, shortness of breath, acute pulmonary edema and shock. Generally, mitral valve replacement is the most effective treatment. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Pulmonary embolism
Myocardial rupture can be a catastrophic sequelae of acute myocardial infarction. It can occur in several sites in the heart after AMI, including the left papillary muscle. This event typically occurs 3-5 days after the AMI has occurred, and is more common in women who have a history of hypertension and are over the age of 60. The posteromedial papillary muscle is twice as likely to rupture as the anterolateral papillary muscle, due to the additional blood supply to the latter. Symptoms may include hypotension, shortness of breath, acute pulmonary edema and shock. Generally, mitral valve replacement is the most effective treatment. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Recurrent myocardial infarction
Myocardial rupture can be a catastrophic sequelae of acute myocardial infarction. It can occur in several sites in the heart after AMI, including the left papillary muscle. This event typically occurs 3-5 days after the AMI has occurred, and is more common in women who have a history of hypertension and are over the age of 60. The posteromedial papillary muscle is twice as likely to rupture as the anterolateral papillary muscle, due to the additional blood supply to the latter. Symptoms may include hypotension, shortness of breath, acute pulmonary edema and shock. Generally, mitral valve replacement is the most effective treatment. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Papillary muscle rupture
Myocardial rupture can be a catastrophic sequelae of acute myocardial infarction. It can occur in several sites in the heart after AMI, including the left papillary muscle. This event typically occurs 3-5 days after the AMI has occurred, and is more common in women who have a history of hypertension and are over the age of 60. The posteromedial papillary muscle is twice as likely to rupture as the anterolateral papillary muscle, due to the additional blood supply to the latter. Symptoms may include hypotension, shortness of breath, acute pulmonary edema and shock. Generally, mitral valve replacement is the most effective treatment. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Respiratory

3.	Norman is a 65-year-old paraplegic who resides in a nursing home. He presents with a 3-day history of increased temperature, productive cough, and increased weakness. His caregiver states that he had developed a decubitis ulcer, and has not been able to tolerate sitting in his wheelchair, so has been in bed for the past week. Bibasilar crackles are audible on auscultation, with overall diminished breath sounds bilaterally. Obvious respiratory distress is apparent with tachypnea, suprasternal retractions and use of accessory muscles. Vitals: T-100.2F, HR-120, RR-28, BP 104/50, O2 Sat on RA - 88%. An initial chest x-ray reveals the "spine sign" and a normal cardiac silhouette. What is the most likely cause of Norman's condition?
		a. CAP
The most likely cause for Norman's condition is nursing home-associated pneumonia (NHAP). NHAP is a subcategory of institutional-acquired pneumonia (IAP), which also includes healthcare associated pneumonia (HCAP). Patients in these settings are at increased risk for exposure to multi-drug resistant (MDR) bacteria. Debility and compromised health status increase the potential for infection. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. HCAP
The most likely cause for Norman's condition is nursing home-associated pneumonia (NHAP). NHAP is a subcategory of institutional-acquired pneumonia (IAP), which also includes healthcare associated pneumonia (HCAP). Patients in these settings are at increased risk for exposure to multi-drug resistant (MDR) bacteria. Debility and compromised health status increase the potential for infection. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. NHAP
The most likely cause for Norman's condition is nursing home-associated pneumonia (NHAP). NHAP is a subcategory of institutional-acquired pneumonia (IAP), which also includes healthcare associated pneumonia (HCAP). Patients in these settings are at increased risk for exposure to multi-drug resistant (MDR) bacteria. Debility and compromised health status increase the potential for infection. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. HAP
The most likely cause for Norman's condition is nursing home-associated pneumonia (NHAP). NHAP is a subcategory of institutional-acquired pneumonia (IAP), which also includes healthcare associated pneumonia (HCAP). Patients in these settings are at increased risk for exposure to multi-drug resistant (MDR) bacteria. Debility and compromised health status increase the potential for infection. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Respiratory

4.	What does the finding of "spine sign" on Norman's chest x-ray indicate?
		a. Pre-existing spinal injury
The presence of the "spine sign" on chest x-ray is indicative of bilateral lower lobe pneumonia. The spinal markings disappear at the level of bilateral lower lobe pulmonary infiltrates, which occlude visibility of the vertebrae. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Kyphosis
The presence of the "spine sign" on chest x-ray is indicative of bilateral lower lobe pneumonia. The spinal markings disappear at the level of bilateral lower lobe pulmonary infiltrates, which occlude visibility of the vertebrae. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Pneumonia
The presence of the "spine sign" on chest x-ray is indicative of bilateral lower lobe pneumonia. The spinal markings disappear at the level of bilateral lower lobe pulmonary infiltrates, which occlude visibility of the vertebrae. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Scoliosis
The presence of the "spine sign" on chest x-ray is indicative of bilateral lower lobe pneumonia. The spinal markings disappear at the level of bilateral lower lobe pulmonary infiltrates, which occlude visibility of the vertebrae. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Endocrine

5.	If a patient is suspected of having an episode of acute hypoglycemia, which of the following is NOT the most appropriate first intervention?
		a. Draw a STAT blood glucose level.
Although drawing a STAT blood glucose level may be part of a number of initial interventions, it should not be the first, since results will take too long to obtain. Patients who are suffering from acute hypoglycemia are at high risk of incurring permanent neurological damage, since the primary energy source for the brain is sugar. Patients who are conscious should consume a simple sugar which will absorb rapidly, like orange juice or glucose tablets. Patients who are unconscious outside the hospital setting or without IV access in the hospital setting should receive IM glucagon. Patients who are conscious in the hospital setting with IV access may be given IV dextrose. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Give the patient a ½ glass of orange juice.
Although drawing a STAT blood glucose level may be part of a number of initial interventions, it should not be the first, since results will take too long to obtain. Patients who are suffering from acute hypoglycemia are at high risk of incurring permanent neurological damage, since the primary energy source for the brain is sugar. Patients who are conscious should consume a simple sugar which will absorb rapidly, like orange juice or glucose tablets. Patients who are unconscious outside the hospital setting or without IV access in the hospital setting should receive IM glucagon. Patients who are conscious in the hospital setting with IV access may be given IV dextrose. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Give the patient IV dextrose or IM glucagon.
Although drawing a STAT blood glucose level may be part of a number of initial interventions, it should not be the first, since results will take too long to obtain. Patients who are suffering from acute hypoglycemia are at high risk of incurring permanent neurological damage, since the primary energy source for the brain is sugar. Patients who are conscious should consume a simple sugar which will absorb rapidly, like orange juice or glucose tablets. Patients who are unconscious outside the hospital setting or without IV access in the hospital setting should receive IM glucagon. Patients who are conscious in the hospital setting with IV access may be given IV dextrose. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Check the blood glucose with a glucometer.
Although drawing a STAT blood glucose level may be part of a number of initial interventions, it should not be the first, since results will take too long to obtain. Patients who are suffering from acute hypoglycemia are at high risk of incurring permanent neurological damage, since the primary energy source for the brain is sugar. Patients who are conscious should consume a simple sugar which will absorb rapidly, like orange juice or glucose tablets. Patients who are unconscious outside the hospital setting or without IV access in the hospital setting should receive IM glucagon. Patients who are conscious in the hospital setting with IV access may be given IV dextrose. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

CCRN Practice Test

Cardiovascular

Cardiovascular

Respiratory

Respiratory

Endocrine

Endocrine

Hematology / Immunology

Hematology / Immunology

Neurology

Neurology

Gastrointestinal

Gastrointestinal

Renal

Renal

Multisystem

Multisystem

Behavior / Psychological

Behavior / Psychological

Professional Caring and Ethical Practice

Professional Caring and Ethical Practice

Endocrine

6.	Marilyn is a Type I diabetic who has been admitted to the unit after a severe hypoglycemic episode in which she lost consciousness. She states that she has had many episode of hypoglycemia, but just does not seem to know when they are coming on anymore. What is the term for this phenomenon?
		a. Hypoglycemia tolerance
When frequent episodes of hypoglycemia occur, the phenomenon of hypoglycemia unawareness can occur. This is more common in Type I diabetics, and is the result of the body's loss of ability to release epinephrine and other stress hormones during episodes of hypoglycemia. Without the symptoms associated with the release of epinephrine and stress hormones, an individual is not aware that blood sugar levels are dropping, which prevents them from taking early action to correct hypoglycemia. Another term for this condition is hypoglycemia-associated autonomic failure (HAAF). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Hypoglycemia unawareness
When frequent episodes of hypoglycemia occur, the phenomenon of hypoglycemia unawareness can occur. This is more common in Type I diabetics, and is the result of the body's loss of ability to release epinephrine and other stress hormones during episodes of hypoglycemia. Without the symptoms associated with the release of epinephrine and stress hormones, an individual is not aware that blood sugar levels are dropping, which prevents them from taking early action to correct hypoglycemia. Another term for this condition is hypoglycemia-associated autonomic failure (HAAF). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Hypoglycemia latency
When frequent episodes of hypoglycemia occur, the phenomenon of hypoglycemia unawareness can occur. This is more common in Type I diabetics, and is the result of the body's loss of ability to release epinephrine and other stress hormones during episodes of hypoglycemia. Without the symptoms associated with the release of epinephrine and stress hormones, an individual is not aware that blood sugar levels are dropping, which prevents them from taking early action to correct hypoglycemia. Another term for this condition is hypoglycemia-associated autonomic failure (HAAF). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Hypoglycemia neurosis
When frequent episodes of hypoglycemia occur, the phenomenon of hypoglycemia unawareness can occur. This is more common in Type I diabetics, and is the result of the body's loss of ability to release epinephrine and other stress hormones during episodes of hypoglycemia. Without the symptoms associated with the release of epinephrine and stress hormones, an individual is not aware that blood sugar levels are dropping, which prevents them from taking early action to correct hypoglycemia. Another term for this condition is hypoglycemia-associated autonomic failure (HAAF). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Hematology / Immunology

7.	Of the following, which is included in the etiology of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
		a. Splenomegaly
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is caused by the presence of Immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies on the surface of the platelets. It is defined as isolated thrombocytopenia with normal bone marrow function and the absence of other causes of thrombocytopenia. Clinically, there are two syndromes which manifest; acute in children and chronic in adults. Depending on the patient's status, treatment may or may not be indicated. If indicated, glucocorticoids and IVIg are the typical mainstays of medical therapy, and surgical options may include splenectomy in adults. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Hepatomegaly
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is caused by the presence of Immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies on the surface of the platelets. It is defined as isolated thrombocytopenia with normal bone marrow function and the absence of other causes of thrombocytopenia. Clinically, there are two syndromes which manifest; acute in children and chronic in adults. Depending on the patient's status, treatment may or may not be indicated. If indicated, glucocorticoids and IVIg are the typical mainstays of medical therapy, and surgical options may include splenectomy in adults. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. IgG autoantibodies
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is caused by the presence of Immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies on the surface of the platelets. It is defined as isolated thrombocytopenia with normal bone marrow function and the absence of other causes of thrombocytopenia. Clinically, there are two syndromes which manifest; acute in children and chronic in adults. Depending on the patient's status, treatment may or may not be indicated. If indicated, glucocorticoids and IVIg are the typical mainstays of medical therapy, and surgical options may include splenectomy in adults. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Bone marrow depression
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is caused by the presence of Immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies on the surface of the platelets. It is defined as isolated thrombocytopenia with normal bone marrow function and the absence of other causes of thrombocytopenia. Clinically, there are two syndromes which manifest; acute in children and chronic in adults. Depending on the patient's status, treatment may or may not be indicated. If indicated, glucocorticoids and IVIg are the typical mainstays of medical therapy, and surgical options may include splenectomy in adults. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Hematology / Immunology

8.	Of the following, which is NOT a consideration when administering IVIg therapy?
		a. Patient's age and comorbidities
Although IVIg is quite expensive, socioeconomic status should never be a consideration in whether a patient receives needed therapy. IVIg contains immunoglobulins which are extracted from thousands of human donors, so it carries some of the same risks as other blood products, but is generally much safer. Various brands of IVIg are available, and differ in how they're prepared. Some manufacturers use sucrose as a stabilizing agent, others may use maltose or amino acids. This is a consideration in choosing the correct brand match regarding the effect on the patient in light of medical history and comorbidities. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Brand of IVIg product used
Although IVIg is quite expensive, socioeconomic status should never be a consideration in whether a patient receives needed therapy. IVIg contains immunoglobulins which are extracted from thousands of human donors, so it carries some of the same risks as other blood products, but is generally much safer. Various brands of IVIg are available, and differ in how they're prepared. Some manufacturers use sucrose as a stabilizing agent, others may use maltose or amino acids. This is a consideration in choosing the correct brand match regarding the effect on the patient in light of medical history and comorbidities. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Patient's socioeconomic status
Although IVIg is quite expensive, socioeconomic status should never be a consideration in whether a patient receives needed therapy. IVIg contains immunoglobulins which are extracted from thousands of human donors, so it carries some of the same risks as other blood products, but is generally much safer. Various brands of IVIg are available, and differ in how they're prepared. Some manufacturers use sucrose as a stabilizing agent, others may use maltose or amino acids. This is a consideration in choosing the correct brand match regarding the effect on the patient in light of medical history and comorbidities. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Access to emergency medications
Although IVIg is quite expensive, socioeconomic status should never be a consideration in whether a patient receives needed therapy. IVIg contains immunoglobulins which are extracted from thousands of human donors, so it carries some of the same risks as other blood products, but is generally much safer. Various brands of IVIg are available, and differ in how they're prepared. Some manufacturers use sucrose as a stabilizing agent, others may use maltose or amino acids. This is a consideration in choosing the correct brand match regarding the effect on the patient in light of medical history and comorbidities. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Neurology

9.	What is the most common site of rupture of a cerebral aneurysm with resulting subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)?
		a. Anterior cerebral artery
The anterior communicating artery is the most common site of cerebral aneurysm rupture with resultant subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). There are usually no precipitating signs prior to rupture at this site, but afterward various abnormal signs may be present, including nuchal rigidity, decreased level of consciousness, and abnormal pupillary findings (usually dilation). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Middle cerebral artery
The anterior communicating artery is the most common site of cerebral aneurysm rupture with resultant subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). There are usually no precipitating signs prior to rupture at this site, but afterward various abnormal signs may be present, including nuchal rigidity, decreased level of consciousness, and abnormal pupillary findings (usually dilation). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Anterior communicating artery
The anterior communicating artery is the most common site of cerebral aneurysm rupture with resultant subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). There are usually no precipitating signs prior to rupture at this site, but afterward various abnormal signs may be present, including nuchal rigidity, decreased level of consciousness, and abnormal pupillary findings (usually dilation). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Posterior communicating artery
The anterior communicating artery is the most common site of cerebral aneurysm rupture with resultant subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). There are usually no precipitating signs prior to rupture at this site, but afterward various abnormal signs may be present, including nuchal rigidity, decreased level of consciousness, and abnormal pupillary findings (usually dilation). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Neurology

10.	Donna is a 43-year-old teacher who was admitted 6 days ago with a ruptured middle cerebral artery (MCA) aneurysm with subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). She underwent surgery for aneurysm clipping 12 hours after admission, and has had an excellent post-operative course. However, this morning, she complained of a severe headache, became acutely confused and quickly progressed to unresponsiveness. What is the likely cause for Donna's change of status?
		a. Expansion of her original SAH
Donna is most likely experiencing vasospasm of one or more of her cerebral arteries. When this occurs, it is generally within 4-14 days for patients who have never had a cerebral bleed in the past, and sooner if this bleed is a recurrence. Usually, the site of spasm is unrelated to the site of rupture. Vasospasm is a serious complication, as it can lead to impaired cerebral autoregulation, cerebral ischemia, and infarction. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Uncal herniation
Donna is most likely experiencing vasospasm of one or more of her cerebral arteries. When this occurs, it is generally within 4-14 days for patients who have never had a cerebral bleed in the past, and sooner if this bleed is a recurrence. Usually, the site of spasm is unrelated to the site of rupture. Vasospasm is a serious complication, as it can lead to impaired cerebral autoregulation, cerebral ischemia, and infarction. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Cerebral vasospasm
Donna is most likely experiencing vasospasm of one or more of her cerebral arteries. When this occurs, it is generally within 4-14 days for patients who have never had a cerebral bleed in the past, and sooner if this bleed is a recurrence. Usually, the site of spasm is unrelated to the site of rupture. Vasospasm is a serious complication, as it can lead to impaired cerebral autoregulation, cerebral ischemia, and infarction. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Medication reaction
Donna is most likely experiencing vasospasm of one or more of her cerebral arteries. When this occurs, it is generally within 4-14 days for patients who have never had a cerebral bleed in the past, and sooner if this bleed is a recurrence. Usually, the site of spasm is unrelated to the site of rupture. Vasospasm is a serious complication, as it can lead to impaired cerebral autoregulation, cerebral ischemia, and infarction. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Gastrointestinal

11.	Matthew is a 26-year-old who has been admitted to the ICU following a motor vehicle accident. Upon assessment, it is noted that he has a positive Cullen sign. What does this indicate?
		a. Basilar skull fracture
A Cullen sign is defined as ecchymosis involving the umbilicus, and is an indication of retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Ecchymosis which involves the flanks is called the Grey Turner sign, and also indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage is difficult to diagnosis clinically, and these signs typically take hours or days to appear. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage
A Cullen sign is defined as ecchymosis involving the umbilicus, and is an indication of retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Ecchymosis which involves the flanks is called the Grey Turner sign, and also indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage is difficult to diagnosis clinically, and these signs typically take hours or days to appear. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Pelvic fracture
A Cullen sign is defined as ecchymosis involving the umbilicus, and is an indication of retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Ecchymosis which involves the flanks is called the Grey Turner sign, and also indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage is difficult to diagnosis clinically, and these signs typically take hours or days to appear. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Aortic tear
A Cullen sign is defined as ecchymosis involving the umbilicus, and is an indication of retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Ecchymosis which involves the flanks is called the Grey Turner sign, and also indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage is difficult to diagnosis clinically, and these signs typically take hours or days to appear. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Gastrointestinal

12.	If bowel sounds are audible when auscultating Matthew's lungs, what injury may he have sustained?
		a. Ruptured spleen
If bowels sounds are audible when auscultating Matthew's breath sounds, a diaphragmatic tear should be suspected. Assessment of the trauma victim must be very systematic, and focuses on priorities in resuscitation and diagnosis based on hemodynamic stability and amount of injury. The ACLS protocol is followed, which includes identifying and treating the most life-threatening injuries first. Significant blunt trauma injuries are easily missed if a systematic process is not followed, as more dramatic injuries may receive the most attention. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Ruptured liver
If bowels sounds are audible when auscultating Matthew's breath sounds, a diaphragmatic tear should be suspected. Assessment of the trauma victim must be very systematic, and focuses on priorities in resuscitation and diagnosis based on hemodynamic stability and amount of injury. The ACLS protocol is followed, which includes identifying and treating the most life-threatening injuries first. Significant blunt trauma injuries are easily missed if a systematic process is not followed, as more dramatic injuries may receive the most attention. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Diaphragmatic injury
If bowels sounds are audible when auscultating Matthew's breath sounds, a diaphragmatic tear should be suspected. Assessment of the trauma victim must be very systematic, and focuses on priorities in resuscitation and diagnosis based on hemodynamic stability and amount of injury. The ACLS protocol is followed, which includes identifying and treating the most life-threatening injuries first. Significant blunt trauma injuries are easily missed if a systematic process is not followed, as more dramatic injuries may receive the most attention. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Gastric tear
If bowels sounds are audible when auscultating Matthew's breath sounds, a diaphragmatic tear should be suspected. Assessment of the trauma victim must be very systematic, and focuses on priorities in resuscitation and diagnosis based on hemodynamic stability and amount of injury. The ACLS protocol is followed, which includes identifying and treating the most life-threatening injuries first. Significant blunt trauma injuries are easily missed if a systematic process is not followed, as more dramatic injuries may receive the most attention. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Renal

13.	If a patient sustains acute renal failure (ARF) secondary to cardiogenic shock, what type of renal failure is this considered?
		a. Intrinsic
Acute renal failure (ARF) which occurs secondary to cardiogenic shock is considered prerenal failure. ARF, also known as acute kidney injury (AKI) is classified according to etiology: prerenal failure occurs as a response to hypotension and volume depletion, intrinsic failure occurs in response to damage within the kidney itself from various toxic, ischemic or inflammatory causes, and postrenal failure occurs from urinary flow obstruction of any cause. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Prerenal
Acute renal failure (ARF) which occurs secondary to cardiogenic shock is considered prerenal failure. ARF, also known as acute kidney injury (AKI) is classified according to etiology: prerenal failure occurs as a response to hypotension and volume depletion, intrinsic failure occurs in response to damage within the kidney itself from various toxic, ischemic or inflammatory causes, and postrenal failure occurs from urinary flow obstruction of any cause. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Postrenal
Acute renal failure (ARF) which occurs secondary to cardiogenic shock is considered prerenal failure. ARF, also known as acute kidney injury (AKI) is classified according to etiology: prerenal failure occurs as a response to hypotension and volume depletion, intrinsic failure occurs in response to damage within the kidney itself from various toxic, ischemic or inflammatory causes, and postrenal failure occurs from urinary flow obstruction of any cause. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Iatrogenic
Acute renal failure (ARF) which occurs secondary to cardiogenic shock is considered prerenal failure. ARF, also known as acute kidney injury (AKI) is classified according to etiology: prerenal failure occurs as a response to hypotension and volume depletion, intrinsic failure occurs in response to damage within the kidney itself from various toxic, ischemic or inflammatory causes, and postrenal failure occurs from urinary flow obstruction of any cause. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Renal

14.	The RIFLE classification system provides a definition and classification system for acute renal failure (ARF). What does the "R" in the RIFLE acronym refer to?
		a. Risk of renal dysfunction
The "R"in RIFLE stands for Risk of renal dysfunction. The remainder of the acronym represents the following: Injury to the kidney, Failure or Loss of kidney function, and End-stage kidney disease. These indicators are used in the context of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or urine output (UO) criteria, or both. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Rapid response to failure
The "R"in RIFLE stands for Risk of renal dysfunction. The remainder of the acronym represents the following: Injury to the kidney, Failure or Loss of kidney function, and End-stage kidney disease. These indicators are used in the context of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or urine output (UO) criteria, or both. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Role of dialysis
The "R"in RIFLE stands for Risk of renal dysfunction. The remainder of the acronym represents the following: Injury to the kidney, Failure or Loss of kidney function, and End-stage kidney disease. These indicators are used in the context of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or urine output (UO) criteria, or both. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Recurrence of intrinsic disease
The "R"in RIFLE stands for Risk of renal dysfunction. The remainder of the acronym represents the following: Injury to the kidney, Failure or Loss of kidney function, and End-stage kidney disease. These indicators are used in the context of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or urine output (UO) criteria, or both. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Multisystem

15.	Andrew is a 47-year-old with advanced amyotrophic lateralizing sclerosis (ALS). He requires total assistance for positioning, bathing and mobility. His swallowing is impaired, so he takes nothing by mouth and receives nutrition through tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. Based on his current condition, what type of asphyxia may Andrew be most susceptible to?
		a. Cardiac asphyxia
Due to his weakness and inability to position himself, Andrew is susceptible to positional asphyxia. Positional asphyxia is associated with compromised respiratory function due to external factors which impair chest expansion, or create occlusion of the upper airway due to abnormal body position. Victims of positional asphyxia are unable to remove themselves from situations which compromise their respiratory status for various reasons, including cognitive and coordination impairment due to intoxication, sedation, neurological abnormalities, impaired consciousness, physical impairment or restraint. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Neurological asphyxia
Due to his weakness and inability to position himself, Andrew is susceptible to positional asphyxia. Positional asphyxia is associated with compromised respiratory function due to external factors which impair chest expansion, or create occlusion of the upper airway due to abnormal body position. Victims of positional asphyxia are unable to remove themselves from situations which compromise their respiratory status for various reasons, including cognitive and coordination impairment due to intoxication, sedation, neurological abnormalities, impaired consciousness, physical impairment or restraint. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Foreign body asphyxia
Due to his weakness and inability to position himself, Andrew is susceptible to positional asphyxia. Positional asphyxia is associated with compromised respiratory function due to external factors which impair chest expansion, or create occlusion of the upper airway due to abnormal body position. Victims of positional asphyxia are unable to remove themselves from situations which compromise their respiratory status for various reasons, including cognitive and coordination impairment due to intoxication, sedation, neurological abnormalities, impaired consciousness, physical impairment or restraint. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Positional asphyxia
Due to his weakness and inability to position himself, Andrew is susceptible to positional asphyxia. Positional asphyxia is associated with compromised respiratory function due to external factors which impair chest expansion, or create occlusion of the upper airway due to abnormal body position. Victims of positional asphyxia are unable to remove themselves from situations which compromise their respiratory status for various reasons, including cognitive and coordination impairment due to intoxication, sedation, neurological abnormalities, impaired consciousness, physical impairment or restraint. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Behavior / Psychological

17.	Madge is a 91-year-old nursing home resident with a history of dementia and atrial fibrillation who has been admitted to the ICU for treatment of pneumonia. As you are performing her bed bath, you note bruising around her breasts and genital area. What potential issue should be of major concern in Madge's situation?
		a. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)
Bruising around the breasts and genitals should trigger concern for sexual abuse. Elder abuse is a growing problem in America, and nurses are uniquely positioned to recognize and intervene on the behalf of vulnerable populations, such as the elderly. According to the National Center of Elder Abuse (NCEA), major types of elder abuse include physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, abandonment, financial or material exploitation and self-neglect. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Embolic stroke
Bruising around the breasts and genitals should trigger concern for sexual abuse. Elder abuse is a growing problem in America, and nurses are uniquely positioned to recognize and intervene on the behalf of vulnerable populations, such as the elderly. According to the National Center of Elder Abuse (NCEA), major types of elder abuse include physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, abandonment, financial or material exploitation and self-neglect. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Sexual abuse
Bruising around the breasts and genitals should trigger concern for sexual abuse. Elder abuse is a growing problem in America, and nurses are uniquely positioned to recognize and intervene on the behalf of vulnerable populations, such as the elderly. According to the National Center of Elder Abuse (NCEA), major types of elder abuse include physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, abandonment, financial or material exploitation and self-neglect. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Nursing home acquired pneumonia (NHAP)
Bruising around the breasts and genitals should trigger concern for sexual abuse. Elder abuse is a growing problem in America, and nurses are uniquely positioned to recognize and intervene on the behalf of vulnerable populations, such as the elderly. According to the National Center of Elder Abuse (NCEA), major types of elder abuse include physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, abandonment, financial or material exploitation and self-neglect. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Behavior / Psychological

18.	Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper" for no reason, starts "ranting" and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence which includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?
		a. Schizophrenia
The pattern of aggression or violence of bipolar disorder includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes, which is highly co-morbid with substance use, which worsens the prognosis. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders identifies several disorders which may carry a higher risk for violent and/or aggressive behaviors, which is a concern when patients with co-morbid psychiatric disorders are admitted to the ICU or general floor for medical-surgical needs. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
The pattern of aggression or violence of bipolar disorder includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes, which is highly co-morbid with substance use, which worsens the prognosis. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders identifies several disorders which may carry a higher risk for violent and/or aggressive behaviors, which is a concern when patients with co-morbid psychiatric disorders are admitted to the ICU or general floor for medical-surgical needs. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Bipolar disorder
The pattern of aggression or violence of bipolar disorder includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes, which is highly co-morbid with substance use, which worsens the prognosis. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders identifies several disorders which may carry a higher risk for violent and/or aggressive behaviors, which is a concern when patients with co-morbid psychiatric disorders are admitted to the ICU or general floor for medical-surgical needs. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Delusional disorder
The pattern of aggression or violence of bipolar disorder includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes, which is highly co-morbid with substance use, which worsens the prognosis. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders identifies several disorders which may carry a higher risk for violent and/or aggressive behaviors, which is a concern when patients with co-morbid psychiatric disorders are admitted to the ICU or general floor for medical-surgical needs. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Multisystem

16.	Ramona is a 21-year-old who has been admitted to the ICU after suffering an anaphylactic reaction during dinner due to peanut sauce in a dish that the host didn't tell her about. She was stabilized in the emergency room with IV epinephrine and IV diphenhydramine. However, 4 hours after being admitted to the ICU she becomes anxious, develops hives and begins to have difficulty breathing. What is the most likely cause for Ramona's symptoms?
		a. Persistent anaphylaxis
Ramona is experiencing biphasic anaphylaxis. The onset of the late phase varies, but usually occurs within 8-10 hours. Risk factors associated with biphasic anaphylaxis include severity of the initial phase, delayed or subtherapeutic dosing of epinephrine, initial airway edema or hypotension, delayed onset of symptoms after exposure, and a history of previous episodes of biphasic anaphylaxis. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Biphasic anaphylaxis
Ramona is experiencing biphasic anaphylaxis. The onset of the late phase varies, but usually occurs within 8-10 hours. Risk factors associated with biphasic anaphylaxis include severity of the initial phase, delayed or subtherapeutic dosing of epinephrine, initial airway edema or hypotension, delayed onset of symptoms after exposure, and a history of previous episodes of biphasic anaphylaxis. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Unresponsive anaphylaxis
Ramona is experiencing biphasic anaphylaxis. The onset of the late phase varies, but usually occurs within 8-10 hours. Risk factors associated with biphasic anaphylaxis include severity of the initial phase, delayed or subtherapeutic dosing of epinephrine, initial airway edema or hypotension, delayed onset of symptoms after exposure, and a history of previous episodes of biphasic anaphylaxis. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Rebound anaphylaxis
Ramona is experiencing biphasic anaphylaxis. The onset of the late phase varies, but usually occurs within 8-10 hours. Risk factors associated with biphasic anaphylaxis include severity of the initial phase, delayed or subtherapeutic dosing of epinephrine, initial airway edema or hypotension, delayed onset of symptoms after exposure, and a history of previous episodes of biphasic anaphylaxis. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Professional Caring and Ethical Practice

19.	Emily has been admitted to the ICU after being found unconscious on the street. She was found to be in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) with a blood sugar of 785. Emily is homeless, has had multiple admissions for DKA, and could benefit from use of an insulin pump, but says she has been repeatedly told, "Those are for rich people." What ethical principle supports Emily's right to have an insulin pump?
		a. Beneficence
The ethical principle of justice supports Emily's right to access of an insulin pump, since her socioeconomic status should not impact her ability to receive care. Nurses must advocate for equal treatment for all patients, regardless of circumstances. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Nonmalficence
The ethical principle of justice supports Emily's right to access of an insulin pump, since her socioeconomic status should not impact her ability to receive care. Nurses must advocate for equal treatment for all patients, regardless of circumstances. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Justice
The ethical principle of justice supports Emily's right to access of an insulin pump, since her socioeconomic status should not impact her ability to receive care. Nurses must advocate for equal treatment for all patients, regardless of circumstances. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Autonomy
The ethical principle of justice supports Emily's right to access of an insulin pump, since her socioeconomic status should not impact her ability to receive care. Nurses must advocate for equal treatment for all patients, regardless of circumstances. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Professional Caring and Ethical Practice

20.	Tonya is a 44-year-old with a history of substance abuse who has been admitted to the ICU status-post left lateral thoracotomy. She has been clean and sober for 14 years, and discussed her status with her physician prior to her surgery. When she arrives from the operating room, she is in a great deal of pain. Post-operative pain management orders are for acetaminophen only. When you ask the surgeon for an opioid for pain management, he states, "She's an addict. She doesn't need anything for pain." What should your first response be?
		a. Report the doctor to administration
Discussing the situation with the doctor privately and professionally will allow the doctor the opportunity to feel less threatened by your concerns. This provides the opportunity for both parties to express viewpoints, understand each other's perspectives, and build rapport, which will ultimately benefit the patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		b. Discuss the situation with the doctor privately
Discussing the situation with the doctor privately and professionally will allow the doctor the opportunity to feel less threatened by your concerns. This provides the opportunity for both parties to express viewpoints, understand each other's perspectives, and build rapport, which will ultimately benefit the patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		c. Complain to the other nurses
Discussing the situation with the doctor privately and professionally will allow the doctor the opportunity to feel less threatened by your concerns. This provides the opportunity for both parties to express viewpoints, understand each other's perspectives, and build rapport, which will ultimately benefit the patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
		d. Ask another doctor to intervene
Discussing the situation with the doctor privately and professionally will allow the doctor the opportunity to feel less threatened by your concerns. This provides the opportunity for both parties to express viewpoints, understand each other's perspectives, and build rapport, which will ultimately benefit the patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.