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2023 Version

NPTE PTA Practice Test

Take this free physical therapist assistant practice test to get an idea of what is on the National Physical Therapist Exam (NPTE) for physical therapist assistants (PTA).

The NPTE for PTAs is a standardized exam produced by the Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy.

The test sections below are based on the NPTE PTA test sections: musculoskeletal, neuromuscular, cardiovascular, pulmonary, integumentary, metabolic, endocrine, gastrointestinal, gentitourinary, lymphatic, system interactions, equipment, therapeutic modalities, safety, professional responsibilities and evidenced based practice.

The actual NPTE PT has 200 questions and four hours is given to complete the test.

View Answers as You Go

View 1 Question at a Time

Musculoskeletal System

1.	A patient is 7 weeks in to rehabilitation following a right medial meniscectomy. The patient reports feeling great overall but continues to have weakness and difficulty walking down hills or down stairs. The most appropriate exercise to address this deficit is:
		a. Eccentric quadricep step downs
		b. Terminal knee extension with theraband
		c. Hamstring curls
		d. Standing hip abduction
Controlling descent requires the quadriceps to work eccentrically. Therefore, eccentric steps-downs are the best exercise to target this deficit. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

2.	A therapist wants to perform a glenohumeral mobilization to improve internal rotation. The correct set-up to perform this manual technique is:
		a. Patient in supine, arm at 90 degrees of abduction, posterior glide
		b. Patient in prone, arm at side, anterior glide
		c. Patient in supine, arm at 45 degrees abduction, posterior glide
		d. Patient in sidelying, arm at 45 degrees abduction, inferior glide.
The open pack position of the glenohumeral joint is a patient in the supine position, with the arm at 45 degrees abduction. In order to improve internal rotation, a posterior glide is performed. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Neuromuscular System

3.	When treating an 8 year old with a new diagnosis of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy, it is important that treatment focuses on:
		a. Gentle passive range of motion to prevent contracture and preserve joint mobility
		b. Light strengthening exercises careful to not reach point of fatigue
		c. Cardiovascular endurance exercises to preserve pulmonary function
		d. Plyometric and balance activities
DMD is a neuromuscular disorder that involves wasting of the muscles. It is important to not over fatigue the muscles but still work to maintain strength as long as possible. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

4.	A patient who is unable replicate facial expressions and has decreased taste on the anterior two thirds of the tongue likely has an injury to the:
		a. Cranial Nerve V
		b. Cranial Nerve VI
		c. Cranial Nerve VII
		d. Cranial Nerve VIII
Cranial nerve VII is both a motor and sensory nerve responsible for facial expression and decreased taste on the anterior two thirds of the tongue. An injury to it would result in deficits in these areas. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary System

5.	Acutely after exercise, these changes are normally observed:
		a. Rise in systolic and diastolic blood pressures
		b. Decrease in systolic and diastolic blood pressures
		c. Increased systolic and slightly decreased diastolic blood pressures
		d. Decreased systolic and slightly increased diastolic blood pressures
Following exercise, it is normal to see an increase in systolic blood pressure and a slight decrease in systolic blood pressure which can be attributed to the vasodilation of arteries during exercise. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

6.	While ambulating a patient who is in acute care for COPD exacerbation, the patient's O2 saturation drops to 82%. The best course of action for the PTA is to:
		a. Try to get the patient to finish the walk as they need to build endurance
		b. Turn the patient's supplemental oxygen up 0.5L to allow them to finish the walk.
		c. Stop ambulation and rest, coaching the patient through purse lip breathing. Then notify the nurse.
		d. Have the patient lie down immediately.
An O2 saturation of 82% is contraindicated for continuing exercise. Stopping to rest while coaching through pursed lip breathing should bring levels back up to a safe number. It is important to notify the nurse of this significant de-saturation. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Integumentary System

7.	While educating family of a spinal cord injury patient, the therapist is reviewing common places for pressure ulcers. The therapist should include which areas as some of the most at risk areas for pressure wounds?
		a. sacrum, coccyx, thighs, plantar aspect of feet
		b. Sacrum, elbows, heels, and forearms
		c. Sacrum, coccyx, elbows, and toes
		d. Sacrum, hips, back of cranium, and heels
The most common areas for pressure ulcers include bony prominences such as: sacrum, coccyx, hips, heels, scapula, malleoli, elbows, ears, and the back of the cranium. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	While performing an ultrasound on a patient, the therapist notices a mole that is atypical in appearance. The rules for determining if a mole requires physician evaluation include:
		a. Asymmetry, irregular borders, non-uniform color, diameter larger than 6mm, and evolving size, shape, or color.
		b. Asymmetry, black in color, coarse, diameter larger than 6mm, and evolving size, shape, or color
		c. Abnormal size, irregular border, non-uniform color, diameter larger than 6mm, and evolving size, shape, or color
		d. Asymmetry, bigger than baseline, non-uniform in color, diameter larger than 6mm, and evolving size, shape, or color
The ABCDEs of moles at risk for cancer are: asymmetrical in shape, irregular borders, non-uniform in color, diameter larger than 6mm, and evolving size, shape, or color. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Metabolic and Endocrine Systems

9.	A patient with a pituitary tumor is being treated in acute care. What effects can the therapist expect this tumor to have on the patient's rehabilitation?
		a. Hypotension
		b. Hypertension
		c. Increased energy
		d. Lower susceptibility to fracture
The pituitary gland has many important functions such as hormone production, growth hormone, and metabolism regulation. A person with a pituitary tumor may cause the patient to be more prone to hypertension. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

10.	A patient with decreased free T3 and T4 and increased TSH likely has:
		a. Low Testosterone
		b. Grave Disease
		c. Hypothyroidism
		d. Hyperthyroidism
T3 and T4 are the amounts of thyroid hormone circulating in the body. When the thyroid is underactive, there may be lower amounts of these hormones circulating. Likewise, this can also contribute to higher levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) because the body is constantly signaling for more thyroid hormones. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Gastrointestinal System

11.	A PTA is treating a patient in an outpatient clinic for lower back pain. When reviewing the PT's initial evaluation, they note that the patient has severe GERD. Which position should be avoided for this patient?
		a. Supine
		b. Sidelying
		c. Prolonged standing
		d. Prolonged sitting
Lying in supine allows acid reflux to stay in the esophagus rather than gravity keeping the gastric acid in the stomach. Therefore, individuals with GERD should avoid lying flat for prolonged periods. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

12.	When treating a patient in the first week of outpatient therapy following placement of a colostomy bag, appropriate exercise could include:
		a. Quadruped alternating arm and leg lifts
		b. Sit ups
		c. High planks
		d. Transverse abdominal holds in supine
Transverse abdominal holds in supine is the most appropriate exercise for this patient in this stage of rehab. All other answer choices are high level exercises that would be too strenuous for the patient beginning rehab following abdominal surgery. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Genitourinary System

13.	A 17 year old female patient is at the end of her rehabilitation for lower back pain having consistently improved and had been pain free for the last week. She reported a sudden relapse of back pain that lasted for about three days and then subsided. She denies a change in activity. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
		a. Metastatic bone disease
		b. Newly bulging disc
		c. Gallstones
		d. Referred pain as a part of the menstrual cycle
Ovarian pain can be part of the menstrual cycle and can occasionally refer to the lower back. With the patient's short-term onset followed by ease of symptoms, this is the most likely cause of those listed. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	A patient with severe arthritis has difficulty making it to the bathroom in time due to the amount of pain and length of time it takes her and to get out of bed and walk down the hall. This type of incontinence is classified as:
		a. Stres incontinence
		b. Functional incontinence
		c. Urge incontinence
		d. Overflow incontinence
Functional incontinence is when a physical barrier prevents a person from getting to the bathroom in time. Here, the patient has incontinence due to the time it takes to reach the bathroom. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Lymphatic System

15.	When performing lymphatic drainage techniques, the therapist should work from:
		a. Proximal to distal
		b. Distal to proximal
		c. Anterior to posterior
		d. Posterior to anterior
Lymphatic drainage techniques are performed proximal to distal in order to re-route fluid around blocked areas to areas that are more readily drained. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

16.	A pregnant patient in her third trimester, who a therapist is treating for sciatic nerve pain, reports feeling like her feet are more swollen today. The therapist presses at the anterior, distal lower extremity and releases. The pressure indents approximately 2 mm and rebounds immediately. This can be classified as:
		a. Non-pitting edema
		b. Grade 1 Pitting Edema
		c. Grade 2 Pitting Edema
		d. Grade 3 Pitting Edema
Grade 1 pitting edema is categorized by pitting of 2mm or less, no visible distortion, and rapidly rebounding. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

System Interactions

17.	When working with a patient who is taking beta blockers, which is the most accurate monitoring tool for exercise intensity?
		a. Heart rate
		b. Berg dyspnea scale
		c. Borg rate of perceived exertion
		d. Blood Pressure
Beta blockers slow down a patient's heart rate. Therefore, heart rate is not an accurate measure for determining exercise intensity for these patients. The Borg rate of perceived exertion scale is the best option for monitoring exercise intensity. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

18.	In treating a patient in sub-acute rehabilitation, following a posterior total hip arthroplasty with mild dementia, the best way to help the patient adhere to hip precautions is:
		a. Print handouts for the patient on hip precautions.
		b. Have the patient demonstrate movements to avoid to reinforce memory.
		c. Have the patient verbalize hip precautions at beginning and end of each session.
		d. Print handouts for caregivers and patients as well as verbalizing precautions multiple times throughout the session.
Answer choice D provides reinforcement in a variety of ways to the patient and the caregivers. Having the patient demonstrate hip precautions is not correct because you would not want the patient performing movements that break precaution. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Equipment, Devices, and Technologies

19.	Which of the following is the most appropriate assistive device for a formerly very active patient with mild hemiplegia following a right hemisphere CVA? The patient has MMT 4+/5 on the unaffected sided in both upper and lower extremities.
		a. Hemi walker used in the right hand
		b. Hem walker used in the left hand
		c. Single point cane used in the right hand
		d. Rolling walker with platform on the left side.
Due to the patient's prior level of function and overall good strength on the unaffected side, a hemi walker is the best choice. Hemi walkers should be used on the strong side. CVAs that occur on the right side of the brain will result in left sided deficits. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

20.	A PTA is treating a patient in home health following discharge from acute care for COPD exacerbation. The therapist notices that the patient is having difficulty standing from a chair. What adaptive equipment would be most beneficial for this patient?
		a. A ramp to enter/exit the home.
		b. Elevated toilet seat
		c. A lift chair
		d. A shower chair
A ramp does not help the patient with his problem nor does a shower chair. A lift chair will lead to further dependence down the road as the patient will lose muscle strength as the sit to stand would be mechanical. An elevated toilet seat would provide the patient extra assistance to help promote independence in the bathroom. Most toilet seats are lower than a chair and can be difficult for patients to stand up from. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Therapeutic Modalities

21.	Which of the following medications would be placed on the anode during iontophoresis?
		a. Dexamethasone
		b. Acetic Acid
		c. Calcium Chloride
		d. Lidocaine
During iontophoresis, medication needs to be pulled towards the desired area. Since opposite charges attract and like charges repel, the negative electrode (anode) needs a positively charged medication placed on it. Lidocaine is the only choice that is positively charged. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

22.	When performing an ultrasound on the achilles tendon for tendonitis, which frequency would be correct?
		a. 1MHz because the injury is superficial
		b. 1MHz because the injury is not superficial
		c. 3MHz because the injury is superficial
		d. 3MHz because the injury is not superficial
In therapeutic ultrasounds, 1MHz frequency is used for deep injuries and 3MHz is used for superficial injuries. Since the achilles tendon is superficial, 3MHz is the appropriate frequency. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Safety and Protection

23.	A PTA is treating a patient who is listed as Mod Assist x 2 for last session. There are no rehab staff available to assist with transferring this patient. How should the therapist proceed with the therapy session?
		a. Skip therapy today since there is not adequate staff to appropriately care for this patient.
		b. Begin therapeutic exercise in patient's current position and page for a nurse or CNA to come assist with the transfers when available
		c. Transfer the patient yourself in order for the patient to receive full therapy benefit for the day.
		d. Use a sliding board to transfer the patient.
Skipping therapy is not an appropriate course of action. Transferring the patient independently when the patient is a two assist is unsafe. B is the safest and best choice in this scenario. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	A patient with active tuberculosis is placed on:
		a. Airborne precautions
		b. Droplet precautions
		c. Standard precautions
		d. Contact precautions
Patient's with active TB are on airborne precautions which include standard precautions as well as respirator use and negative pressure rooms. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Professional Responsibilities

25.	A PTA is treating a patient who was evaluated for home health physical therapy two weeks ago. The patient has experienced a significant decline in function reporting an increase in falls and more intense pain. The best course of action for the PTA is to:
		a. Work with the patient for a few more sessions to see if symptoms improve.
		b. Hold on therapy for a week as the patient is overtired.
		c. Document symptoms for the PT to look at during the 30 day progress evaluation.
		d. Call the supervising PT to have the patient re-examined due to significant change in health and functional status.
When a patient experiences a significant change in function or status, the PTA should always contact the supervising PT as soon as possible. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

26.	The law that states that all children have a right to a free, appropriate public education is:
		a. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA)
		b. Fair Education Act (FEA)
		c. No Child Left Behind
		d. Disabled Children Accommodation Act (DCAA)
The IDEA states that all children are entitled to a free and appropriate public education. This is pertinent to PTAs as therapists can work in school settings to provide services to help children safely and effectively access their educational environment. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Evidence Based Practice

27.	What is the highest level of evidence in the research hierarchy?
		a. Cohort studies
		b. Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)
		c. Systematic Reviews
		d. MetaAnalysis
The research hierarchy from lowest to highest is: In vitro; animal research; ideas, editorials, and opinions; case reports; case series; case control studies; cohort studies; randomized controlled double-blind studies; systematic reviews and meta-analysis. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

28.	Which of the following would be considered a quantitative value?
		a. Self report ADL assistance
		b. Range of motion
		c. Dermatomal sensation deficits
		d. Type of assistive device
Quantitative values are those that can measured numerically. The other answer choices do not have numerical value therefore are qualitative measures. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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